I need to work through this step-by-step.

**Given:**
1. All bloops are razzies
2. No razzies are lazzies

**Reasoning:**
If all bloops are razzies, then every bloop is in the category of razzies.

If no razzies are lazzies, then there's zero overlap between razzies and lazzies.

Since every bloop is a razzie, and no razzie can be a lazzie, then no bloop can be a lazzie.

**Answer: No**, bloops cannot be lazzies.
